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Translation - After marriage (English)

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11 November 2011 18:49  

Lein
Number of messages: 3389
Hi merdogan,
Any idea what is meant by 'to meet all of them'? To meet all my obligations? To buy everything I want?
Thanks! In the mean time I have set a poll.
 

11 November 2011 23:01  

merdogan
Number of messages: 3769
It can be "to pay" or "to cover".
 

13 November 2011 00:28  

Francky5591
Number of messages: 12396
Hi! The French version by Bilge is slightly different, talking about the end of the last sentence.

Bilge, could you help?

Thanks!


CC: Bilge Ertan
 

13 November 2011 12:58  

Mesud2991
Number of messages: 1331
I don’t have enough money to meet all of them. --> I don’t have the economic power to meet all of them. ('them' refers to the needs to be met)
 

13 November 2011 13:36  

Bilge Ertan
Number of messages: 921
Hello guys!

I didn't translate the last sentence word by word. If I did, it would be like that "Je n'ai pas assez de force économique pour payer tout ça." which means:

"I don't have enough economic power to pay all of that"

I think there's not a big difference. But if you think it will be better to change, we can do that
 

13 November 2011 13:49  

itsatrap100
Number of messages: 279
The last sentence needs rewriting.. e.g, I don't have enough savings for that.
 

13 November 2011 14:30  

lilian canale
Number of messages: 14972
Sorry to interfere, but I think that even not using the same words, the last line would sound more natural in English and be grammatically correct as:

"Since I divorced from my wife I've had to give her half of my salary, I can't afford all that."

Does that convey the original?

CC: Bilge Ertan itsatrap100 Mesud2991
 

13 November 2011 14:37  

Bilge Ertan
Number of messages: 921
Hello Lilian,

It does not convey completely. Because from the Turkish text, we see that the person haven't divorced from her wife yet. He means, when he'll be divorced, he'll have to give his salary. But your last sentence is exactly correct: " I can't afford all that" sounds really more natural.

CC: lilian canale
 

13 November 2011 14:47  

Mesud2991
Number of messages: 1331
I agree with Bilge Ertan.
 

13 November 2011 14:59  

lilian canale
Number of messages: 14972
Oh...I thought he was already divorced

then...what about this?

"After I divorce from my wife I'll have to give her half of my salary, I can't afford all that."

CC: Bilge Ertan
 

13 November 2011 15:46  

Bilge Ertan
Number of messages: 921
Yes, that's it! I think this is much better. We should use it. Thanks Lilian!

CC: lilian canale
 

13 November 2011 15:48  

merdogan
Number of messages: 3769
"I don’t have enough economic power to afford all that."
is O.k for me.
 

13 November 2011 16:02  

Mesud2991
Number of messages: 1331
Actually, it's not clear. We can't be sure 100% if he divorced or not. I think he most probably divorced from her wife ('maaşımın yarısını eşime ödemek zorundayım' was used in the present tense)
 

13 November 2011 16:33  

merdogan
Number of messages: 3769
I think he didn't yet because he says " ...sonra = after ".
He could say " I am paying her half of my salary".
At least he dosen't want to divorce and he plays with another woman.
 

13 November 2011 17:12  

Mesud2991
Number of messages: 1331
Still, we can't know it. To clarify, "Şu anda maddi durumum iyi değil. Biliyorsun eşimden boşandıktan sonra ona her ay düzenli olarak para yollamak zorundayım."
 

13 November 2011 21:32  

merdogan
Number of messages: 3769
Dear rollingmaster,
In original text there is nothing like this.
 

13 November 2011 21:45  

itsatrap100
Number of messages: 279
Fine by me, I can't see the fr. trans. now.
 

13 November 2011 21:57  

Bilge Ertan
Number of messages: 921
Actually, I agree with merdogan. I understand that he haven't divorced yet, because if it was the case, then he would say: "Karımdan boşandığım için..." But here he is talking about the future plans. He is still maried with a women and he wants to leave her to marry with his lover. But he can't be sure because he knows that if he divorces from his actual wife, he will have to pay her some money. I am pretty sure that the case is like that.
 

13 November 2011 23:06  

Mesud2991
Number of messages: 1331
I agree, I just gave an example of the fact that they might have divorced from each other because I’m not sure. The text might be telling us something like in my example. The man wants to marry but he has difficulty with his financial situation. Why? Because he divorced from his wife and the court order specified that he must pay his wife half of his salary. Most probably this is the case but I’m not pretty sure. Maybe he's married and cheating on his wife. If he divorce from his wife, he’ll have to pay her some money and he doesn’t want to marry with lover. However, if the case were like that, the following sentence would be “I will not be able to have the economic power to meet all of them”

In brief, "Eşimden boşandıktan sonra maaşımın yarısını eşime ödemek zorundayım" means 'they divorced from each other' (as in my example) as well as 'they are still married' (like you said).
 

13 November 2011 23:18  

lilian canale
Number of messages: 14972
Wouldn't it be easier to ask paradox1 what his real situation is (about to divorce - already divorced - just thinking about divorcing) so that we can present an accurate translation?

Bilge, could you do that, please?

CC: Bilge Ertan
 
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