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Shouln't be: Τὶ ποιεῖ ὁ θεός, πρὸς τὸ ἄμεινόν ἐστιν. ?

Dzień dobry ponownie, pani profesor!

About the "ephelcystic ny" , I studied that it must be added when the word is followed by a word beginning with a vowel.
Should it be added even if that word is at the end of a sentence?

Yes, Τὶ instead of Ὅτι is right.
Ιn fact I was taught where Latin would use "quod" , Greek would use τί .

About πρό/πρός + GEN :
my grammar book give them both a function of benefit and interest towards someone or something.
Does πρός fit better here, or there are other reasons which I'm unaware of?

Dzień dobry, mój drogi Aleksie!

1. You’re right that “Τὶ ποιεῖ ὁ θεός” means “What God does” and it should be rather “whatever…”, so I think “Ὅ τι ποιεῖ ὁ θεός” will be even better. The neuter nominative/accusative singular “ὅ τι” is written with a space to disambiguate it from the conjunction “ὅτι”.

2. And about the rule „ἐστι” and "ἐστιν". Of course, when the verb is put in the middle of a sentence we always proceed like you typed, but when we have the comma or the full stop after the verb, we also should use “ἐστιν” form.

3. You typed: πρὸ τοῦ ἄμεινόν
Sorry, Alex, but in my opinion you are not consistent. The adjective “ἄμεινόν” is put in the accusative and an article τοῦ is in the genitive! Why?

So:
If you really typed πρό + GEN, it should be:
"πρὸ τοῦ ἄμεινoῦ"

But I don’t think “πρό” is a good preposition here. Have a look please:
πρὸ + gen:
πρὸ καιροῦ = (he went) before time
πρὸ τοξευμάτων = (it protects them )from shells/ missiles
πρὸ τῶνδε = for that (what indicates a reason)

Meanwhile we have here: "Whatever God does is for the better!", what probably could be expressed also this way: “Whatever God does turns into the better!”.

So, we should indicate some direction, not a benefit, an interest nor a reason. It is not going to be a benefit of “the better (things)” but of “us”. Am I right?

This is why I suggested using πρὸς + acc ( τὸ ἄμεινόν)

4. Anyway, I am not so good at ancient Greek as at Latin, so I can be wrong. I would wait also for another votes, dear Alex.

Kisses!

1. I agree, I will ask Francky to change it

2. I didn't know it.

3. With "πρὸ τοῦ ἄμεινόν " I mean that ἄμεινόν is a neuter adjective in adverbial function (I would say "per il meglio" in Italian).
And adverbs do not inflect.
But, to avoid ambiguity, I would accept your idea regarding πρὸς + ACC as it is a proper interpretation of this text.

4. It's only you and me who dare translate to Ancient Greek and I don't think poll will really help.
Of course we can contact Efylove.
As a student of Liceo Classico, she has got without any doubt a good knowledge of Ancient Greek.
Do you know other ones, professor?

Haha! The list of points was helpful!

About the 4th. point, Efylove is not a student of Liceo Classico! (Maybe she once was, but now after finishing her studies, she is not a student but "profesoressa".
Even if no one, except us, dares to translate into the language , our experts into Greek also knows it quite well and helped once with my translations, so maybe it is not bad idea to ask them again.

CC: User10 Efylove irini reggina

Yes, I meant she "was" a student of Liceo Classico

So let's wait for their opinion

Hello! Here I am.
So, I understand what alexfatt means with πρὸ τοῦ ἄμεινόν as πρὸ + gen. + adverb. But I think πρὸς it's better, because it gives that idea of direction we are looking for.

Dear Aneta, Serena and Christina!

Finally, could you please tell me if this last translation is OK?

- Tὶ ὁ θεός ποιεῖ, πρὸς τὸ ἄμεινόν ἐστιν.

Thank you in advance, girls

CC: Efylove User10