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| | 20 December 2009 13:45 |
| | Can you please check this latin sentence? Is it totally correct? |
| | 20 December 2009 14:56 |
| | Hi gokseli,
The translator (Aneta B.) is one of our experts for Latin, therefore the translation must be correct.
However, it will still be evaluated by another expert, just to be sure.
Please, wait until it is accepted, OK? |
| | 21 December 2009 13:21 |
| | OK, ı'm waiting.. thanks a lot |
| | 21 December 2009 17:50 |
| | Hm. Thanks for your patience, gokseli.
I could accept it as an expert for Latin, but I have one doubt about a tense in a clause "quam habes". I put here the present (like it was in English), but it could be also the future, because the action concerns future events...So, I'd wait for Efylove...
Efee, could you help me here? |
| | 21 December 2009 17:52 |
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| | 21 December 2009 23:24 |
| | Ah ok, got it
so, if we want to emphasize the present tense meaning, "quam habes" is better than "quae habes", right?
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| | 22 December 2009 00:03 |
| | Hi gokseli, why did you ask an admin to check this page? |
| | 22 December 2009 00:14 |
| | No, gokseli, I didn't mean it. "quae habes" will be wrong here.
I was typing just about a tense. I consider using the future tense instead of present. Then it will be "quam habebis", but I asked the another expert for Latin about her opinion, to be sure, and I am still waiting for her reply. |
| | 12 February 2010 15:32 |
| | Hello, the translation of this sentence has been changed ı think.. Does it mean that the first translation was wrong?
"Carpe diem, quod felicitas sola res, quam habes, in fine diei erit." was the first form. |
| | 12 February 2010 15:58 |
| | It was me, who edited, gokseli.
Well, the previous one wasn't bad, but this one is shorter. Latin is a language that "prefers" shorter sentences. If it is possible to write it shorter, why not. This is why I decided what I did. I'm very sorry if I confused you. |
| | 12 February 2010 16:07 |
| | Well then, thanks a lot ı just have a doubt whether the second translation has the exact meaning of my english sentence..
I also have another question, if I prefer using 'beatitudo' rather than 'felicitatem', will the rest of the sentence be the same?
Thanks for help |
| | 12 February 2010 16:24 |
| | Why would you like to change "felicitas" into "beatitudo" (blessing/salvation)? The words have different meanings as you probably know.
But, as you asked, I can tell you that the sentence with "beatitudo" will be read:
"Carpe diem, quod beatudinem solam in fine diei habebis".
But maybe, you wanted to write "beatitas" =happy life, (the great)happiness
With this noun, the sentence will be:
"Carpe diem, quod beatitatem solam in fine diei habebis".
All three are feminine gender, so nothing more changes. Hope I could help you. |
| | 12 February 2010 16:30 |
| | Yes, ı wanted to write beatitas
That was great, thanks a lot have a nice day.. |
| | 12 February 2010 16:32 |
| | You're welcome. Have a nice day too. |
| | 12 February 2010 17:36 |
| | Sorry, ı have another and final (hope so) question
what does beatitatem exactly mean? is it the plural form of beatitas? |
| | 12 February 2010 17:53 |
| | Oh no! This is not plural, but another declension's case --> accusativus singularis... Every direct object of transitive verbs (here: habere = to have) is put just in this case in Latin language...
So, nominative: beatitas, accusative: beatitatem.
I know English have no declensions and it is difficult to understand what they are... |