Vertaling - Grieks-Latijn - Τίποτα δεν είναι τυχαίο...

a latin teacher friend of mine...
said to me that more correct is....
Nihil est fortuium....


thanks in advance
Mike Moisi

Thanks for this remark, Mike!

Aneta or Efy? Both "nihil" and "nil" are correct, I think, but I'm not personaly qualified to explain Mike why "nil" was used here.

Could you? Thanks a lot!

CC: Efylove

Latin "nil" = contraction of "nihil"
Both forms are correct and both in use.
So, I don't understand your teacher's opinion, Mike.

Oh, but if it was your homework, I can guess the teacher wanted to say that "nihil" was more common and more literary... Well, even in modern languages, we use contractions rather in spoken (or not formal) language than in written one...

But "nil" appears even in well-known Latin proverbs, e.g.

"Homo sum, humani nihil alienum a me esse puto"
or: "Homo sum, humani nil a me alienum puto"

Thanks again for everythink....
Mike